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oops two balls eh? Thot it was 3.
My bad..
[ This Message was edited by: niranjan007 on 2006-04-06 18:54 ]
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Posted: 2006-04-06 19:48:25
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On 2006-04-06 16:55:32, Syrus_20 wrote:
Pretty simple really...
On the 1st ball, the 1st batsman takes 3 runs. On the second ball, the second batsman hits a four. So they both make 101 runs in a partnership..so they make their century & win the match obviously.
Job done.
both batsmen make a century, not a century partnership between them, as if they are both already on 94, then they passed a century partnership way earlier in the innings.
I think you'll find that the answer i posted is correct
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Posted: 2006-04-06 20:20:10
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hmm lol, well urs is right no doubt, but i cant help but think that the answer isnt that complicated...plus its not exactly worded brilliantly imo
Well the poster better put up the answer to this or its just a waste of my mental energy...which is quite hard to muster up these days lol. And..well i need to know the answers to stuff...like magic...i need to know how its done or i get pissed off lol.
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Posted: 2006-04-07 01:17:13
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On 2006-04-01 22:05:18, mutleyboy wrote:
i think i may have figured it out!! Dont need to be a genius at all, just need to know the rules of cricket and then a bit of lateral thinking. took a while, as i was thinking of what ways a run could be cancelled, but the ball still count, then i remembered about short runs, and also using overthows is the answer too
the first batsman hits the ball and they run 3 runs before the fielder throws the ball back, when he does it results in overthrows and they run another 4 runs. This means that 7 has been scored, first batsman has made century and the other one is now on strike.
The umpires call one of the runs short, thus meaning 1 more run is still needed to win. the other batsman then hits a 6 off the last ball and all is well *thumbs up*
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[ This Message was edited by: mutleyboy on 2006-04-01 21:17 ]
I think this is the most correct but only hardcore cricket lovers would know this so it cant be the answer...
also if one ball was the last ball of an over... and another bowler had to finish an over with one ball coz of an injury after bowling only 5 balls...
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Posted: 2006-04-07 09:26:55
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if a bowler had an injury after 5 balls of an over, then another bowler comes on to bowl the last ball to complete the over straight away.
it isnt left uncompleted until the end, so it is not possible for an over to finish, and then 1 ball from a previous uncompleted over to be bowled after
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Posted: 2006-04-07 10:17:30
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